
Christopher B. answered 03/31/22
Mathematics Tutor (Masters of Science candidate)
This is a classic Corporate Finance question that utilizes the Time Value of money equation for yearly payments, PV = FV / (1+r)^(t). Where PV is the present value, FV is the future value, r is the interest rate, and t is time.
For the first one, we modify the equation to the monthly time value of money, PV = FV / (1+ (r/12) )^(t/12), where t is now in months. Now we sum the months after the grace period for t= 13..48 and r = 0.11,
100/(1+ (0.11/12) )^(13/12) + 100/(1+ (0.11/12) )^(13/12) + ... + 100/(1+ (0.11/12) )^(47/12) = 2772.53
The single additional payment is easier to discount back, 500*(1+.11)^4 = 329.36
The value of the first project is $3101.90
The second project is much easier. We apply the same formula for PV = 3500 / (1+0.11)^(3) = 2559.17
This confirms our choice of A.