
Justin W. answered 11/12/19
Computer Science, English, ESL, Spanish
You are correct. The subjunctive in both cases uses the bare form of the infinitive, without the "to".

Justin W.
I recommend reading Wikipedia or a similar source, as I think they can explain it much better than I. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_subjunctive A few key points are that the present/past in the subjunctive mood refers to the form of the verb rather than its meaning. In other words, past tense does not require a past subjunctive. e.g. I insisted that she share her candy. The past subjunctive is used primarily for expressing hypothetical situations. e.g. If I won the lottery, I would buy a house. The only unique past subjunctive form is "were", which is used for all subjects (I, he, she, they, we, John, etc.) e.g. If I were hungry, I would eat. If John were hungry, he would eat.11/12/19
Rosa B.
Thank you, Justin! I would have translated in this way(UPPERCASE) the past: It was necessary that they BE warned of the risks (past) IT WAS NECESSARY THAT THEY WERE WARNED OF THE RISKS I recommended that he SEE a specialist (past) I RECOMMENDED THAT HE SAW A SPECIALIST Could you explain why mine are wrong? Thank you!11/12/19