Asked • 09/05/19

Does literary theory have a technical term for a writer publishing the first version of one of their works in a foreign language?

Does literary theory know a **technical term** for the following:> An accomplished writer intentionally publishes the first version of one of their texts *in a language which they neither know (well), nor usually publish in, nor is a language usually read by the writer's usual readership*? **Remarks.*** Needless to say, the "neither know (well)" condition implies that the writer has to rely on the good offices of some translation services, of some sort or the other. The question is not restricted by how the 'translation' was made, but *an essential part of the question is that the foreign-language version is the* **first version of the text**: there was no first version in the native language of the writer. This makes this case so curious.* I know one example of this phenomenon, but won't give it, not to bias the question, and *because I am mostly interested in the technical term*. I would also appreciate some relevant examples from literary history, but to find those seems comparably easy. But again: relevant examples would be appreciated, too. There is, e.g., some tradition of what one could call 'love offerings', in the sense that a writer tries to honour some linguistic community by taking the pains of composing a piece in a foreign language.* I don't know a technical term. **Neither 'pseudonomy'** **nor 'Pseudepigrapha'** are applicable (while vaguely related of course). It's some curious variant of obfuscation. In the case motivating this question, it seems some sort of being embarassed about the piece and wanting to 'downplay' it as a 'lesser work', and trying to curb the number of people who will read it.

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Chris S. answered • 09/10/19

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