Asked • 03/24/19

Does it mean that men are more likely to harass people or is it saying that men harassing men is more common than women harassing women?

[Link to the source where this is found](http://www.gvsu.edu/women_cen/sexual-harassment--82.htm)>**Men are more likely than women to harass**.>Both male and female students are more likely tobe harassed by a man than by a woman. Half ofmale students and almost one-third of femalestudents admit that they sexually harassedsomeone in college, and about one-fifth of malestudents admit that they harassed someone oftenor occasionally. Although equal proportions ofmale and female students say that they harassed astudent of the other gender, male students aremore likely to admit to harassing other malestudents. Almost one-quarter of male harassersadmit to harassing male students, compared toone-tenth of female harassers who admit toharassing female students.My question is: The first part of the paragraph seems to say that men are more likely to harass people, but the later portion of it says that men harassing men is more common than women harassing women. What is the paragraph actually trying to say? Can someone help me calrify this please? Thanks.

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Lauren D. answered • 03/24/19

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