Grammar: "te veo los ojos"?

Question

I have few questions: 1. In the example `"Te veo los ojos"`, in English that is `"I see your eyes"`. `te=your`, right? If I change the sentence to `"Se veo los ojos"`, then it will become `"I see his/her/its/your eyes"`? Are these two sentences missing the subjects? 2. `"Veo tus ojos"` and `"Te veo los ojos"` both have the same meaning, only grammatically different? And if there is any tone difference? I mean, during what condition do the spanish people say each of them? 3. Is `"te"` a dative pronoun here? If I do not want to use the pronoun, how can I say it in Spanish?

Answer 1

"Te veo los ojos"`, in English that is `"I see your eyes"`. `te=your`, right? If I change the sentence to `"Se veo los ojos"`, then it will become `"I see his/her/its/your eyes"`? Are these two sentences missing the subjects? 2. `"Veo tus ojos"` and `"Te veo los ojos"` 

'Te veo' means "I see you." Los ojos means "the eyes." To say I see your eyes, you can use, "Veo tus ojos"(singular, informal) or "Veo sus ojos (which can be either formal or plural.) or even "Veo los ojos. Te in your example is the direct object pronoun "you." 'Tus' is "your' (informal) and sus can be "your (formal or plural) or even 'his' or 'her.'

Yes, the samples are missing the subject pronoun 'yo' (I). You don't have to use it in Spanish as the 'o' on the end of veo marks the first person singular 'I." You CAN say "Yo veo tus ojos" but you do not have to include the Yo.