Use of "Que" in "Que todo te vaya bien"?

Question

> Que todo te vaya bien. > > Que nos reunamos a las 6. I've seen, and used, `que` in this form - it's as if the verb has been dropped, say, `espero`. What is the origin of this usage? Is it colloquial / formal? What do grammarians think? Is it universally understood? What's its prevalence in South American, Spain, etc?

Answer 1

Yes, "espero" is the understood verb that triggers the subjunctive tense of the next verb.

In English,it is like using the word MAY before:

1 a wish (may all go well for you)

2 to politely state an expectation (may we meet again at 6pm)

It definitely conveys respectful speech, but is not necessarily formal.

Yes, it is common usage in Spain & Latin America.

Answer 2

Its a colloquial expression, used and the ending of a meeting with friends, co-wokers, family. The word "Que" in this case replace all issue of conversation expressing best wishes.

Andres: Hola Diana Como estas?

Diana: Estoy estudiando mucho para la prueba de ciencias, necesito conservar la beca de estudios.

Andres: veo que estas ocupada, te dejo para que continues.

Que te vaya bien. Nos vemos luego.

Answer 3

Expressions like: "Que te vaya bien", "que tengas buen día", are commands in subjunctive mode to express a wish.

"Que" is indicating a wish like "Quiero que te vaya bien", or "Deseo que tengas buen dia", o "Espero que tengas buen dia",

In the case of "Que nos reunamos a las 6", in my opinion, is missing the verb. It does't sound good without it.

Better would be: "Espero que nos reunamos a las 6", "Ojalá que nos reunamos a las 6" or "Me gustaría que nos reuniéramos a las 6".

Answer 4

Your instinct is correct. There is an understood “Espero” that’s precedes the “que.” I would say a phrase such as “que te vaya bien” is neither colloquial more formal. It’s just generally what you would say to someone as you are bidding them goodbye. From my experience it is equally used in peninsular as well as Latin American Spanish.