Why does "Se habla espanol" translate to "We speak Spanish"?

Question

I see on stores that they have a sign that says `Se habla espanol`. From first glance I would think that it is saying "It speaks Spanish". How is it unambiguous that it is saying "*We* speak Spanish"? I think that "We speak Spanish" would be `Hablamos espanol`. Are these both acceptable translations?

Answer 1

Great observation! You’re right that at first glance, “Se habla español” looks like “It speaks Spanish.” But in Spanish, this “se” construction is often used to make general or impersonal statements. In this case, it really means something like “Spanish is spoken here.” or 'One Speaks Spanish here'.

That’s why stores use it on signs - it’s less about who exactly speaks Spanish (me, the manager, all employees) and more about giving a general message: “Don’t worry, you can use Spanish here.”

Hablamos español (We speak Spanish) is also totally correct - it just feels a little more direct and personal, like the staff is speaking to you.

Se habla español is more neutral and commonly used in public signs.

So both are right depending on the context, but the “se” version is the classic choice for storefronts.

Answer 2

Se habla español is more directly translated as "Spanish is spoken". The se+verb construction in this example is the "passive se" construction, where the direct object (in this case, español) is the subject of the sentence. This construction is used a lot in order to express something without a human subject. Many people translate this type of construction using "we" because it is more of a general "we" and does not refer to a specific human subject.