
Henry I. answered 03/14/19
Experienced, Patient Math and English teacher
Honestly, I don't see any tense shifting here. The original version is all in present and the revised version all in past.
The reason for the prohibition against tense shifting is that it can cause clarity problems for the reader. One thing always to consider with this kind of question is whether the "error" is actually a stylistic device. Obviously, using present puts the narrator right there with the reader and gives a sense of immediacy. If that's what the writer was going for, then play on!
For what it's worth, I agree with you that the original version sounds more natural here.
Best wishes