
Tim D. answered 05/24/21
Experienced College Instructor & Tutor Specializing in Statistics
- Your answer would be correct, yes.
- The concern here is that the percentages given are not the same on both sides of the mean. They do differ noticeably. But the key to why it does not matter is called the Central Limit Theorem, which says that if the sample size is large enough, the sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal, regardless of the skewness of the population being sampled. Generally, a sample size of 30 or more is sufficient. Since this question uses n = 36, we can say yes.
- The mean of the sampling distribution of the sample mean = mean of population = 9.2 mm here. The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the sample mean = (σ /√n) = (2.5 / √36) = 0.417 mm. Therefore P( sample mean > 9.8) = P( Z > (9.8 - 9.2)/0.417) = P(Z > 1.44) = 0.0751. So for any other probabilities about the sample mean, once we compute (σ /√n), called the standard error of the mean, we can proceed much as we did for other normal distributions, as long as n > 30.