
Stanton D. answered 02/20/21
Tutor to Pique Your Sciences Interest
So Margaret B.,
If q=0.374 (as you correctly calculated) then p = 1-q = ?
You can figure p^2 (dominant homozygous) and 2pq (heterozygous) from there?
Cheers, -- Mr. d. (you'll note from my last name initial that my family is quite recessive!)
P.S. that 2pq is easily seen from expanding the binomial product: (p+q)*(p+q) . We show the cross with segregated alleles in the Punnett square display, which is just a handy way of visualizing the math of probabilities.
Margaret B.
Thank you so much!02/20/21