
John G. answered 09/29/19
Flexible tutor with MA in Classics
It's hard to say for certain exactly what Shakespeare intended, for a variety of reasons. First, and most importantly, is the fallacy of authorial intent: it's impossible to know for sure exactly what the author intended in a text unless they explicitly express it. Second, the idea of "homosexuality" and what it referred to has varied greatly over the years -- in the time of Shakespeare, according to some scholars, they used "love" for what we would refer to as "really close friendship."
The thing is, Shakespeare isn't a book; it's a script: it's living and breathing, not merely words on a page. We tend to forget it sometimes, but it's not meant to be read, it's meant to be performed by live people in a live space. Which means it's up to a particular production to interpret the text how they wish. Does the love expressed between the two underpin a homosexual relationship taboo in society at the time? Or is it emblematic of a society where men were comfortable expressing their emotions to each other, and thus behaved in a manner that comes across to modern viewers as "stereotypically gay?" Or is it something in between? These are the choices an actor and a director must make when they're putting on this show.
I know you were looking for a bit of a straight answer, but in theatre, nothing is straightforward.