Jessie T.

asked • 03/05/23

How do I arrive at the wave function of a particle in a ring? Why would the answer be ψ = Ae^+-inθ and not one with sine or cosine?

How do I get to the particle wave function? . Consider a particle in a ring. For this example let the circumference line to extend from -L/2 to L2 with the end points glued together to form a complete ring of length L. normalize ψ

1 Expert Answer

By:

RIshi G. answered • 03/05/23

Tutor
5 (5)

North Carolina State University Grad For Math and Science Tutoring

Jessie T.

thank you, !!
Report

03/07/23

Jessie T.

it helped me a lot, thanks
Report

03/07/23

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