Daniel B. answered 04/30/21
A retired computer professional to teach math, physics
Let
a be the common acceleration of the two blocks.
(Their accelerations have different direction, but common magnitude a.)
b.
Block 1:
T1 - m1gμ = m1a, where
m1gμ is the force of friction,
T1 - m1gμ is the net force acting on block 1.
Block 2:
m2g - T2 = m2a, where
m2g is the weight of the block,
m2g - T2 is the net force acting on block 2.
Pully:
(T2 - T1)r = Mr²a/r, or simplified
T2 - T1 = Ma, where
T2 - T1 is the net force acting on the pully,
(T2 - T1)r is the torque acting on the pully,
Mr² is the moment of inertia of the pully,
a/r is angular acceleration of the pully.
c., d.
We have three equations and three unknowns T1, T2, a
T1 - m1gμ = m1a
m2g - T2 = m2a
T2 - T1 = Ma
a = (m2g - m1gμ)/(m1 + m2 + M) = g(m2 - m1μ)/(m1 + m2 + M) = gQ
where we abbreviate Q = (m2 - m1μ)/(m1 + m2 + M)
T1 = m1gQ + m1gμ = m1g(Q + μ)
T2 = m2g - m2gQ = m2g(1 - Q)
e.
The time t it takes to drop height h with acceleration a is
t = √(2h/a)
In that time the speed becomes
v = at = a√(2h/a) = √(2hgQ)
f.
Starting from rest, at the beginning the kinetic energy of the whole system is 0.
Let the potential energy of block 2 at the beginning be also 0.
Then after dropping height h
-m2gh is the potential energy of block 2
m2v²/2 is the kinetic energy of block 2
m1v²/2 is the kinetic energy of block 1
Mr²(v/r)²/2 is the kinetic energy of the pully, which can be simplified into
Mv²/2
The total energy plus the work performed by the force of friction over the distance h must equal initial energy, i.e., 0:
0 = Mv²/2 + m1v²/2 + m2v²/2 - m2gh + m1gμh
g.
v = √(2h(m2g - m1gμ)/(m1 + m2 + M) = √(2hgQ)
h.
Q = (8 - 4×0.4)/(4 + 8 + 2) = 0.457
a = 9.81×0.457 = 4.48 m/s²
T1 = 4×9.81×(0.457 + 0.4) = 33.6 N
T2 = 8×9.81×(1 - 0.457) = 42.6
v = √(2×1.5×4.48) = 3.67 m/s