
Wael A. answered 10/22/20
Effective Math, Science, and Chemistry Tutor
The patient has classic symptoms of possible underling sepsis ie. fever, chills, SOB, and elevated WBC. The treatment of Cephalexin (cephalsoipirin) can be used as treatment for his infection. However, this sounds like a drug resistant cellulitis. Cellulitis have undefined borders, redness, edema of the tissue and pain. The most underlining cause in an IV drug user is Staphylococcus aureus. Due to his septic symptoms and drug resistance, I would assume it is MRSA Methicilin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus a s the culprit. Vancomycin is a good medication to escalate treatment. (B) is the same medication as Cephalexin and it won't do anything.
The best answer is Vancomycin (E).