
Matthew M. answered 06/16/20
Biochemistry Graduate For Sciences and Math Tutoring
To understand this answer, first we must consider the genetics of males vs females. Males have XY chromosomes, whiles females have XX. Sperm cells will also contain either the X or Y from the male parent, while everyone gets 1 of the X chromosomes from the mother. This gene is also X linked, meaning it's located on the X chromosome.
The mother is colorblind. For now we don't know if the disease is dominant or recessive. If it is dominant, and the mother has 2 copies of the colorblind gene, then all the kids would be colorblind. Try your own punnet squares for both XcX and XcXc vs XY. If the mother is XcX (only has 1 copy), then we would expect half of the boys and half of the girls to be colorblind. We don't see this in the above situation.
Now lets consider if colorblindness is recessive. Look at the previous punnet squares, but now think of it in terms of being recessive. The mother must have the genotype XcXc, as she is colorblind. Look back on that punnett square of XcXc vs XY but now view it as a recessive gene. All males would be colorblind, as males only have 1 X, if they have the effected gene, there is no "normal" X to offset it. And no females would be colorblind as they only have 1 copy. This matches the description given above.
We can conclude that this is a recessive gene. Try out some punnet squares with the XcX and XcY and other variations to see how this gene is passed on to males and females differently.