
Patrick B. answered 05/25/20
Math and computer tutor/teacher
Yes, #3 is IVT and by MVT since the secant line has slope of 1/3
#2 is Rolle's Theorem
the function has the same f(1)=f(3)=1, so the derivative is zero somewhere in (1,3)
#1) MVT says the derivative is 1 on (0,1) because the slope of that secant line is 1