Anuj M. answered 04/07/20
4+ years of Biology teaching experience, with many satisfied students
If an autosomal dominant allele determines gout, then both heterozygotes and dominant homozygotes are affected, except, in this case, females are not affected (i.e. there is 0% penetrance in females, so the trait is sex-limited to males), and only 20% of males with one or two dominant alleles are affected. If two heterozygotes have children, there is a 3/4 chance that each child will inherit a dominant allele from either or both parents. There is an independent 1/2 probability that a child will be male. Independent probabilities are multiplied, so there is 1/2 of 3/4, or 3/8 chance of having a male with at least one dominant allele. For a male with one or two dominant alleles, there is a 20%, or 1/5 probability that he will develop gout. In other words, 1/5 of male children with at least one dominant allele for the gene will develop gout. So, the probability that heterozygous parents have a child who develops gout is 3/8 × 1/5 = 3/40.