
Tonia P. answered 10/22/19
Ph.D. in English Literature with 20+ years teaching experience
Building on Audrey K.'s answer, the differences in the text you observe are not "right" or "wrong," but different versions. Audrey mentions the various folios; in case you don't know what she is talking about, we don't have any manuscripts in Shakespeare's hand of the plays (which, remember, were written to be performed by the actors, not for publication as "literature"), so we have to rely on versions that were published after his death. Also, orthography (how words are spelled) has changed over the centuries; in earlier versions of the plays, words were spelled differently than we would spell them now, so most versions of the plays these days modernize the spelling, and often have to make a guess about exactly what words were intended.
Punctuation also has changed (and gotten more formal), so again, modern texts are making their own best guess about exactly where the breaks signified by commas should go. But if you look at the language carefully, you'll see that it isn't really very different in the three versions. If discussion the variations is important to your argument, then you can get into a very elaborate exploration of the subtle differences that might be suggested by the various interpretations of the oldest version (the First Folio), but if your job is simply to analyze what Ferdinand is talking about, follow what Audrey K. has laid out about the basic sense and apply that to your overall argument.