
Tony H. answered 01/05/18
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Yes, the statement is true. The Inflection Point Theorem (usually discussed with the Second Derivative Test) states that an inflection point exists where f"(c) equals 0. The function must be differentiable and the second derivative must changes signs at x=c.
Ashley H.
No, its false. what about a parabola? The second derivative is zero at the vertex but it doesn't change signs on either side.06/10/19