Inactive Tutor answered 11/18/17
Tutor
New to Wyzant
What you have here is
f(t) = (1/e)t2
Apply the Laplace transform of a power. For f(t) = tn,
F(s) = n!/sn+1
Sailas I.
asked 11/17/17Inactive Tutor answered 11/18/17
Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.
Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.
Inactive Tutor
11/19/17