Question a) seems to be worded kind of funny. I will assume that they want you to use the equation that you developed to find the instantaneous rate of change (although that isn't very clear).
I would use a couple of additional decimals in the equation and then round off at the end. So, I ran the curve-fit and got y = 30.37e-0.004065t
The rate of change is found by taking the derivative. The derivative of an ex function is just ex but the chain rule requires you to multiply by the derivative of the "something else" if its something other that "x" in the exponent. So the derivative is y' = (-0.004065)(30.37e-0.004065t) or y' = -0.12345e-0.004065t
Please note that if you have a TI-84 calculator, you can type the equation y = 30.37e-0.004065t into "Y1" and use the math button and then "8:nDeriv(" to get the value of the derivative at each value of "x"
Either way, you find that:
The instantaneous rate of change at t = 30 is -0.12345e-0.004065(30) = -0.11 mg/min
The instantaneous rate of change at t = 60 is -0.12345e-0.004065(60) = -0.10 mg/min
The instantaneous rate of change at t = 90 is -0.12345e-0.004065(90) = -0.09 mg/min
The instantaneous rate of change at t = 120 is -0.12345e-0.004065(120) = -0.08 mg/min
The instantaneous rate of change at t = 150 is -0.12345e-0.004065(150) = -0.07 mg/min
The instantaneous rate of change at t = 180 is -0.12345e-0.004065(180) = -0.06 mg/min
You can say that the rate of codeine in the blood is negative because codeine is leaving the blood. You can say that the rate that codeine is leaving the blood is dropping off (codeine is leaving the blood at a higher rate at the beginning and then leaving at a smaller rate after time goes by.
90% gone means 10% is left. 10% of 30 is 3 mg. Using your equation you can plug in y = 3 and solve for "t":
3 = 30.37e-0.004065t
3/30.37 = e-0.004065t
0.09878 = e-0.004065t
Now take the natural log of both sides of the equation:
ln(0.09878) = ln(e-0.004065t)
-2.3148 = (-0.004065t)(ln(e))
-2.3148 = -0.004065t
-2.3148/-0.004065 = t
t = 569.5 minutes or 9.5 hours so give the second pill 9.5 hours after the first.
For question c), after 1 hour the *from the data table) the amount of codeine in the body (from the first pill only) is 23.5 mg. Taking a 2nd pill at this time would add 30 mg to that making a total of 53.5 mg. If you use you equation to model this, you would first put in t = 60 and get:
(first pill only) 30.37e-0.004065(60) = 23.8 mg
(plus from the second pill t = 0) 30.37e-0.004065(0) = 30.37 mg
23.8 + 30.37 = 54.2 mg
You can see that this method would over exaggerate the amount of codeine in the body but if you round to 2 digits, they both would be 54 so maybe it's OK.
You could use a piecewise function to model this situation:
The max amount is the 54 mg
90% eliminated means 10% is left which is 5.4 mg:
5.4 = 54e-0.004065t
5.4/54 = e-0.004065t
0.10 = e-0.004065t
ln(0.1) = ln(e-0.004065t)
-2.3026 = (-0.004065t)(ln(e))
-2.3026 = -0.004065t
t = -2.3026/-0.004065
t = 566 minutes = 9.44 hours (this is actually the same as what you got (or should have gotten) from question b) but there was a little error because of the equation so maybe you want to round off your answer. Anyway, you would still need to add the 1 hour between the 1st and 2nd pill to get a total of 10.5 hours (or there abouts)