
Josh N. answered 06/08/21
Experienced Mathematics and Statistics Tutor
I would highly recommend doing b) first. It is far easier.
P(Family has at least one child) = P(1 Child) + P(2 Children) + P(3 Children) + P(4 Children) + P(5 Children) = 0.15+0.30+0.25+0.20+0.05=0.95
Alternatively, you can recognize that the family having at least one child is the same as the complement of the family having no children or 1-P(0 Children)=1-0.05=0.95
For a, you an assume gender is independent of the number of children. This allows you to multiply the probability of a child being male and the probability a family has x children. You have to be careful with this though. Here's how I would set it up:
P(1 Child AND Male) = 0.15 * 0.5 = 0.075
P(2 Children AND there is at least one male) = 0.30 (the probability of having two children) * 0.75 (the probability of having at least one male child if a family has two children)
0.75 can be found a multitude of different ways. I personally believe using complements will be the easiest. As we showed that the probability of having at 1 of something is 1-P(0 of something), we can re-use that same logic. In other words, the probability of a family having at least one male is equal to 1-Probability(All Female). The probability of having at least one male for a given number of children can be found in italics below:
So for 2 children, it would be 1-(0.5)2 = 1-0.25 =0.75
For 3 children, it would be 1-(0.5)3 = 1-0.125 = 0.875
For 4 children, it would be 1-(0.5)4 = 1-0.0625 = 0.9375
For 5 children, it would be 1-(0.5)5 = 1-0.03125= 0.96875
So combining all of that would yield the following:
P(1 Child AND at least one male) = 0.15 * 0.5 = 0.075
P(2 Children AND at least one male) = 0.30 * 0.75 = 0.225
P(3 Children AND at least one male) = 0.25 * 0.875 = 0.21875
P(4 Children AND at least one male) = 0.20 * 0.9375 = 0.1875
P(5 Children AND at least one male) = 0.05 * 0.06875 = 0.0034375
Add up those 5 bolded numbers to get your answer!
Vladimir A.
Thank you very much!06/08/21