Linda ..
asked 04/20/21Show that the given functions are orthogonal on the indicated interval.
F1(x)=x , F2(x)=cos2x ,[-pi/2,pi/2]
1 Expert Answer
Tessa W. answered 06/04/21
Math PhD with Over 20 Years Experience, Patient and Kind
if you are using the inner product <f(x),g(x)> = ∫f(x) dx from -π/2 to π/2, you just need to evaluate the integral:
∫x cos (2x) dx from -π/2 to π/2 which is equal to 0 (using intgration by parts), so, infact, the functions are orthogonal.
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Mark M.
F2(x) = cos (2x) or F2(x) = cos^2 x?04/20/21