Tom S. answered 06/10/20
Experienced, Patient Secondary School, College, and SAT/ACT Math Tutor
Hello Angie,
This problem has a shortcut to do it. So you don't actually have to take any antiderivatives!
Notice that if you substitute -x for x, arctan(-x) would be -arctan(x) while
1 + (-x)4 would be the same as 1 + (x)4. This means the integrand function has f(-x) = -f(x) which makes it an odd function (symmetric to the origin). What would the integral of an odd function from -pi to pi be?
Hint: Compare the integral from -pi to 0 and the integral from 0 to pi.