
Maurice S. answered 08/06/19
Besides English grammar, I know how and why it got that way.
I would have to say that the example given in the Longman Dictionary is incorrect according to the accepted formal rules of English. However, in English (in contrast to French which is at least theoretically controlled by the Academie Francaise) dictionaries have always recorded not only "correct" usage, but also evolving and colloquial usage. Therefore I would have to say that the Longman Dictionary is placing itself at the forefront of the trend to change our usage of "due to" to conform to the degree to which this error has become widespread among English speakers and writers.