
Michael B. answered 08/12/19
Adjunct Professor of English, Over a Decade of Tutoring Experiance
On a strictly grammatical sense, speaking as if the phrase were NOT an idiom, it is grammatically incorrect, seeing as it is not a complete sentence. While you can get away with a lack of a subject in imperative sentences, it lacks a predicate. As for the the adjective/adverb confusion, you are correct as far as I understand it. There is a flexibility on the interpretation of the words because the subject/predicate is missing. We could interpret this as applying to either a verb ( to be) or as a adjective modifier reflecting back at the subject.
However, idioms are basically the clause or modifier version of an irregular verb. They become the exception to the rule, because the idioms tend to originate from spoken word, where the sound and rhythm are an intrical part of the meaning and implications of the phrase. Losing that for the sake of grammatical accuracy destroys phrase. This is why we let idioms run amuck with grammar.