Asked • 05/30/19

What was done for soil fertility prior to crop rotation?

Did fallowing actually work that well? Has it been tested? What was done prior to this? Or did the mesopotamians write about 'two-field system' too? (for lack of a better term for pre-crop rotation) ​ Why in the year 1000 AD (according to Phillip Daileader on Great Courses Plus), did Europeans only receive 2 grain for every 1 planted? Did they not have crop rotation at that point, even though (I thought) they had it in the carolingian era?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Muriel G. answered • 10/09/20

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