Asked • 04/19/19

Why don't antiseptic agents kill 100% germs?

I've seen innumerable antiseptic, mouthwash, handwash advertisements that claim to be able to eliminate as much as 99.9% of all germs over a surface...but why not the remaining 0.1% (i.e- why can't they eliminate all germs)? Being a student of Biology, I can tell that the term "germs" is crudely defined. I would prefer to use "pathogens" (less ambiguous), and I suppose the guys that market these products have (roughly) the same idea in mind. Pathogens normally include bacteria (monerans), protozoans, fungi and viruses... so I guess these are the "germs" they're talking about. Why is it that these (commercial) products can't eliminate 100% of all pathogens? Is this due to the inability of antiseptics to act on a particular (class of) organisms? If so, what's the problem there? Or is it because, the guys who market stuff like this assume an arbitrary amount (0.1%) of the pathogens present on a surface (say, the human hand) is located in microscopic niches that are inaccessible to the antiseptic solution? (**If** it isn't possible to provide a blanket statement in this regard, use of *Listerine* as an example will suffice) In other words: Is an antiseptic's inability to eliminate 100% of all germs due to its "chemistry", or is it due to physical factors? Also, Do Antiseptics/mouthwashes/handwashes even kill 99.9% of all germs in the first place? Or is it (as I strongly suspect) an example of marketing fraud?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Jesse E. answered • 04/27/19

Tutor
4.6 (8)

Experienced Biochemistry Tutor

Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.

Ask a question for free

Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.

OR

Find an Online Tutor Now

Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.