Max M. answered 04/06/19
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You are correct that they are not two independent clauses. Even though the part after the comma (the second "a thousand years since") is long and has a verb, the subordinating conjunction "since" still makes it a dependent (or subordinate) clause, so a semi-colon would be incorrect.
In situations like this, the trick I use to make sure is to simplify the sentence while keeping its grammatical structure intact. What about: "It had been a day since the dog had eaten, a day since he had chased a cat." There's no need for a semi-colon there, right? If you really want one, then you should re-write the sentence to add the implied second "it had been." Like so:
"It had been a thousand years since the Razzies had X'ed; it had been a thousand years since he had Y'ed."
To over-extend this answer, the only time I would use a semi-colon without separating independent clauses is when I have a list of things that already have commas in them.
So:
My favorite movies are Love, Actually, I Love You, Man, and Lock, Stock, and Two Smoking Barrels.
Wow, what?!
But:
My favorite movies are Love, Actually; I Love You, Man; and Lock, Stock, and Two Smoking Barrels.
Oh, ok.