Asked • 03/13/19

Is it a fallacy to say that a sane person cannot apply rational thought to the motivations of the insane?

A common argument in today's news is that: 1. Someone commits a heinous crime by shooting a bunch of people. 2. Anyone who commits a heinous crime must be insane. 3. Sane people cannot apply rational thought to explain what motivates the insane. 4. Therefore, one cannot ascribe a cause or catalyst to a heinous crime. Is there a fallacy in this logic? If so, what is it?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Michael J.

tutor
Also the assumption that heinous crimes are only committed by the insane arouses some questions for me, for example people who inadvertently commit heinous crimes, though at the moment no examples come to mind.
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03/13/19

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