J.R. S. answered • 05/04/17
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Ph.D. in Biochemistry--University Professor--Chemistry Tutor
46,000 is what % of 147,000? 46,000/147,000 (x100%) = 31.3 % owned by person A
11,000/147,000 (x100%) = 7.4% owned by person B
J.R. S.
tutor
Yes. The bank would own the rest. If not a mortgage, then unless or until each contributes more, that is the % they are entitled to. Or unless you know what % of the total price is represented by the downpayment. For example, is the downpayment 20% of the purchase price. Without knowing that, not much else can be determined. Unless this is some sort of trick question, and maybe I'm missing the ambiguity. Sorry if that's the case.
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05/04/17
Jo S.
05/04/17