Louie R.

asked • 02/15/14

Math problem: Let f: X ?

Y be a function.True or False?A sufficient condition for f to be one-to-one is that for all elements y in Ym there is at most one x in X with f(x)= y.

1 Expert Answer

By:

Steve S. answered • 02/15/14

Tutor
5 (3)

Tutoring in Precalculus, Trig, and Differential Calculus

Leonel G.

F is one-to-one if, and only if, the following universal statement is true:
∀ x1, x2 ∈ X, if f (x1) = f (x2) then x1 = x2.
Not sure but i think it's True
Report

11/10/15

Leonel G.

the reason I think is True is the following: For an input value X there's is only one output value Y or at most one x in X with f(x)= y.
Report

11/10/15

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