Dan D. answered 06/23/16
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Hello Hassan - greetings from Holyke MA
I think Richard A may have misunderstood your problem (or perhaps I have):
It sounds like there is a pool of 38 people and 6 will be chosen at random to be on a committee.
Those 38 are from six categories: "5 students, 8 teachers, 5 principals, 10 parents, 4 professors, and 6 business people."
We want to know the chance that the randomly-selected committee will have exactly one from each category.
Let's consider selecting from the pool one at a time and start with the probability that we choose, in order: a student, a teacher, a principal, a parent, a prof. and finally a business person. That probability is:
(5/38)*(8/37)*(5/36)*(10/35)*(4/34)*(6/33)
Note that with each pick there is one less person in the pool, so the demoninator decreaes.
If we want to pick them in a different order we get a similar expression, for example the chance to pick them in the reverse order is:
(6/38)*(4/37)*(10/36)*(5/35)*(8/34)*(5/33)
This is equal to the first case: the numerator consists of the product of the numbers of each type, and the denominator is the product of 38 ... 33.
Now, as Richard A points out, there are 6! (=720) different ways (orders) we could pick one from each category; from the above cases it makes sense that each ordering has the same probability, so all together the chance is:
720 * (5/38)*(8/37)*(5/36)*(10/35)*(4/34)*(6/33)
= (5*4*5*8*10*2)/(19*37*7*17*11) <-- it's not a simple fraction
~ 0.0174
Let me know if this is not correect, thanks.