Grammar, if someone does not specify an amount of people…

Question

If someone does not specify an amount of people in a topic would that mean all of that group?

ex. “Men are strong.”

ex. “Women like to clean.”

Answer 1

If the topic is not narrowed it applies to all of the specified group. This could be a stereotype or showing the author's bias.

Answer 2

Yes, it would mean all people in that group as a literal translation. However, the writer or speaker could also be saying it as a stereotype or a generalization of a group. A stereotype is a basic idea about a group of people. A generalization is an idea that you apply to a whole group of people.

In your examples, the writer is making a generalization that all men are strong and all women like to clean. In reality, we know that is not true! (As much as I like my house to be clean, I don't always love doing the cleaning!) ;-)