Bradford T. answered 08/09/23
Retired Engineer / Upper level math instructor
By D I method
D I
+ tan-1(x/2) 1
- 2/(x2+4) x
I = xtan-1(x/2)|20 - ∫202x/(x2+4)dx = π/2 - ∫84du/u = π/2 - (ln(8)-ln(4)) = π/2 - ln(2)
Luke A.
asked 08/09/23Using integration of parts, find the exact value of ∫tan-1(1/2x) dx between the limits of 2 and 0.
After I apply the integration by parts rules, I obtain tan-1(x) •x-ln(x2+4) between 2 and 0 however the complete integration they give in the mark scheme is 2θtanθ+2ln(cosθ). Their final answer is 1/2pi-ln2.
Any help in the steps to get here would be very much appreciated!! :)
Bradford T. answered 08/09/23
Retired Engineer / Upper level math instructor
By D I method
D I
+ tan-1(x/2) 1
- 2/(x2+4) x
I = xtan-1(x/2)|20 - ∫202x/(x2+4)dx = π/2 - ∫84du/u = π/2 - (ln(8)-ln(4)) = π/2 - ln(2)
Raymond B. answered 08/09/23
Math, microeconomics or criminal justice
did you mean as written
integral of inverse tangent of 1/2x
or of inverse tangent of (1/2)x?
2nd leads to
xarctan(x/2) - ln(x^2+4)
evaluated between 0 and 2
= 2arctan(2/2) -ln8 - (0 -ln4)
= 2pi/2 - ln8 +ln4
= pi/2 -ln(8/4)
= pi/2 -ln2
or if
integral of arctan(1/(2x)) then
= ln(4x^2 +1)/4 +xarc(1/(2x))
evaluated between 2 and 0
=(ln17)/4 +2arctan(1/4) - (0 +0)
= about .72 + .04pi
= .84
Luke A.
Sorry about the ambiguity, I did mean the 2nd way. Thankyou!08/12/23
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Luke A.
Thankyou!!08/12/23