
Ashley P.
asked 06/01/23Measurable Functions
Question:
Let (X,@) be a measurable space.
Prove that if for each a in R, {x in X | f(x) <= a } is measurable, then f is measurable.
My approach
Let a belong to R.
Then,
{x in X | f(x) <= a } = {x in X | f(x) > a }c
since the right hand side is measurable if f is measurable, left hand side implies that f is measurable.
Is this a correct approach?
1 Expert Answer
Yes this is the correct way to approach this problem since the complement of a measurable set is measurable.
Ashley P.
I've noticed somewhere that the converse does not hold in general. Since I've done the proof as the converse, is this true?06/02/23

Jeremie F.
06/02/23
Ashley P.
Thank you for the comments!06/02/23
Still looking for help? Get the right answer, fast.
Get a free answer to a quick problem.
Most questions answered within 4 hours.
OR
Choose an expert and meet online. No packages or subscriptions, pay only for the time you need.
Roger R.
06/02/23