Ashley P.

asked • 05/28/23

Lesbegue Measure of a Set Given the Union of a Set is Measurable

Question:

Let A ⊆R such that m∗(A) = 0.


Show that if A ∪ B ∈ L, then B ∈ L.


My approach:


We can write B as

B = (A ∪ B) ^ (A^(Bc)), where ^ denote intersection.


We know that the intersection of two Lebesgue measurable sets is also a Lebesgue measurable set.


A ∪ B is already given as a measurable set.


A is a set with Lebesgue outer measure 0.


Now I want to know whether B or Bc is measurable, to prove A^(Bc) is measurable, which again comes to what we need to prove in this question.


Also, we can see that

A^(Bc) is a subset A.


I think to find the Lebesgue outer measure of a set, we must first have that set is Lebesgue measurable.


If A^(Bc) is Lebesgue measurable, we can write by the monotone property of m*,

m*(A^(Bc)) <= m*(A)


which gives m*(A^(Bc)) = 0, provided that A^(Bc)) is Lebesgue measurable.


But again, is that set measurable?


How do we prove the required result?

Roger R.

tutor
Null sets are always Lebesgue measurable.
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05/28/23

Roger R.

tutor
"I think to find the Lebesgue outer measure of a set, we must first have that set is Lebesgue measurable." That's false, the outer measure is defined for all sets. The Lebesgue measure is based on the outer measure, not the other way around.
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05/28/23

Ashley P.

So that means L. outer measure is defined for any set, but Lebesgue measure is not defined for all sets?
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05/28/23

Roger R.

tutor
Yes.
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05/28/23

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