Ashley P.

asked • 05/07/23

Calculus of Variations - Lagrange Equation

My instructor has given the question in the image and the sample answer has also been given by him.


Image of the question and the instructor's answer: drive(DOT)google(DOT)com/file/d/1XkjhzrN1MKNc0XDrLlAR_pu6l39P9AY7/view?usp=share_link


However, I don't understand how step 1 simplifies into step 2, as in his calculation. Instead, I get below as step 2.


Step 2 according to my calculations :


( y*(y'') + ((y')^2) )/(sqrt(1+((y')^2)))) - (y*((y')^2)/(1+((y')^2))^(3/2)) - (sqrt((1+((y')^2))))


Any help in understanding this will be highly appreciated!

2 Answers By Expert Tutors

By:

Ashley P.

Thank you so much! This explains how part (b) came up.
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05/08/23

AJ L.

tutor
Yea no prob! It was just recognizing how y√[1+(y')^2] becomes y[1+(y')^2]/√[1+(y')^2] so similar terms can be combined which is the same as y√[1+(y')^2](1+(y')^2)^(-1/2). The rest is pretty simple simplification.
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05/08/23

Dayv O. answered • 05/07/23

Tutor
5 (55)

Caring Super Enthusiastic Knowledgeable Pre-Calculus Tutor

Roger R.

tutor
It should be {yy″-1-y′²}/{(1+y′²)√(1+y′²)} = 0. Multiplying by the positive denominator yields the ODE yy″ = 1+y′².
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05/08/23

Dayv O.

better, thanks-- let me think about positivity in denominator.
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05/08/23

Ashley P.

Thank you so much for the explanations! I was able to simplify the Lagrange equation up to the point, [ y*y" - 1 -(y')^2 ]/[1+((y')^2)] = 0 And then I was thinking why do we want to involve the modulus here, as in the last step of the answer of my instructor?
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05/08/23

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