Ashley P.

asked • 03/20/23

Lebesgue Outer Measure and Lebesgue Measurable Sets

Question:


If m*(E) = 0, show that E is Lebesuge measurable, where m*(E) denote the Lebesgue Outer Measure of E.


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Notations I've used:


^ refers to intersection.


eg: A^E refers ro the intersection of the two sets A & E


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My approach towards the question:


We know that a subest E of R is Lebesuge measurable if,

m*(A) = m*(A^E) + m*(A^(Ec) --->(*) for any subset A of R.


Now consider m*(E).


m*(E) = 0 (Given) --->(1)


But,

m*(E^E) = m*(E) = 0 (given in the question)


and,


m*(E^(Ec)) =m*(null set) = 0


This gives,


m*(E^E) = m*(E) + m*(E^(Ec)) =0 --->(2)


From (1) & (2),


m*(E) = m*(E) + m*(E^(Ec)) which can be considered a special case of (*), which proves E is Lebesgue measurable when m*(E) = 0



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My concerns regarding my approach to this question are:


(1) Is this a correct way to prove this?

(2) Are there any other better ways to prove this?

1 Expert Answer

By:

William C. answered • 03/22/23

Tutor
New to Wyzant

PhD Student at UCLA

Ashley P.

Thank you so for much for the informative explanation!
Report

03/23/23

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