Kenneth A. answered 2d
Experienced Tutor in Criminal Justice, Law, History, math, and writing
Short answer: yes, your idea works, with one small tweak.
- Take any positive real k > 0 (not just integer.)
- Note that [b−2k, b−k]⊂(−∞,b) and also [ b-2k, b-k ] ⊂ ( - ∞, b - k]
- For bounded intervals we know m^∗([x, y])=y−x (this is a standard lemma proved from the definition of outer measure). Hence
k = m∗ ([b−2k, b−k]) ≤ m∗(i).
- Since this holds for every k > 0, m^ * (I) cannot be finite; thus m^∗ (I) =∞. By convention the “length” ∫ ( i ) of an unbounded interval is also ∞, so m^∗( i ) = ∫ ( i ).
So:
(i) k should be any positive real number.
(ii) Your proof is correct provided you’re allowed to use the fact that m^* of a bounded interval equals its length. If you want a variant that avoids invoking that directly, do this:
Let J N= ⋃n =1N [ b−n−1, b−n ]⊂ i. For a finite disjoint union of intervals,
m^∗(JN)=∑n=1 1=N. By monotonicity, m^∗(i) ≥ m^∗ (JN)=N m^*(I) for all N, hence m^∗(i) =∞.