Peter F. answered • 09/16/22
Published Author; K-12 Grammar Teacher; 18 Years' Teaching Experience
Hi Joshua,
"nor has reviews" is grammatically incorrect since 'has' is singular tense verb form and 'reviews' is plural noun form.
"nor had reviews" is written in the past tense whereas "the saga has not put the audience off" is written in the present tense. Therefore "nor have reviews" is grammatically correct in this case because 'have' is the plural form of the singular verb tense/form 'has' and 'reviews' is written in plural form here. Also, "have" is present tense verb form at that.
Peter F.
09/16/22
Joshua H.
I see! Thanks a lot!09/16/22
Peter F.
09/16/22
Joshua H.
Thank you very much Peter! So in the sentence "nor have reviews decrying the film’s shallow characterisation and tendency to glide over social injustice", "reviews" is the subject? I find it quite confusing to comprehend this clause ... I know there is a phrase "have somebody doing something" and the inversion "nor do I" ... And if "reviews" is the subject, wouldn't that mean "have decrying" is the verb? This sounds grammatically incorrect ... Thank you very much!09/16/22