Here's my try at it.
I'm assuming that operating expenses (rent, salaries, etc) do not include cost of sales.
Then Profit = Revenue - Operating Expenses - COS
Using the percentages given: 0.50SP = SP - 0.30SP - COS
COS = SP - 0.80SP = 0.20SP
SP = COS/0.20
If that's true, then the watches purchased at $774 would sell for 774/0.20 = $3,870 before the mark-down.
$3,870 - 40% is a sale price of $2,322.
Operating expenses based on regular price are 0.30(3870) = $1,161 (I decided not to base it on the reduced price).
So profit at the $2,322 sale price would be $2,322 - $774 - $1,161 = $387
I'm interested to see other people's take on this question!