Daniel B. answered 04/29/21
A retired computer professional to teach math, physics
Suppose you have a total of n balls, out of which m balls are white.
For the question to make sense we need to assume m <= n and n >= 2.
First let me give you the answer:
If m = 0 then then both probabilities are equal 0.
If m = n then then both probabilities are equal 1.
Otherwise replacement gives you a higher probability for the following reason.
The first ball is white with probability m/n.
For the second ball the probability depends on whether you replace or not.
If you replace then the second ball is while with probability m/n.
If you do not replace then the second ball is while with probability (m-1)/(n-1).
So we need to prove
(m-1)/(n-1) < m/n
(m-1)n < m(n-1) (result of multiplying both sides by n(n-1)
mn - n < mn - m (result of expanding the expresions)
-n < -m (result of subtracting mn from both sides)
n > m (result of multiplying both sides by -1)
The last expression is true after having eliminated the case m = n.