Jeff K. answered 05/07/20
Together, we build an iron base of understanding
Hi, Michael:
The simple answer is Yes!
By definition of a logarithm, if bx = m, then x = logb(m)
Now, suppose p = (bx) x (by)
=> p = bx+y [By the law of exponents]
Therefore, from the definition: x+y = logb(p) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . . . eqn (1)
Let bx = m and by = n . This means that x = logb(m) and y = logb(n)
Substitute into eqn (1): logb(m) + logb(n) = logb(p) [so multiplication becomes addition of logs]
Suppose q = (bx)y
=> q = bxy [By the law of exponents]
=> xy = logb(q) [Definition of log]
Therefore: y logb(x) = logb(q) [The power law for logs: an exponents multiplies the log]