Asked • 07/29/19

Is there a rule prescribing the absence of the -eth third person ending in late middle English?

Is there a rule prescribing the absence of the *-eth* third person ending in late middle English ?In the King James Bible, there are many verses which contain verbs in the third person without the -eth a the end, for example : >Psalm 7:2 Lest **he tear** my soul like a lion, rending it in pieces, while there is none to deliver. Is there a particular reason for this ? Would "Lest he teareth" have been correct ? (I've been thinking that maybe it was a subjunctive, that wouldn't take the ending or something of the sort)

Donnie V.

"eth" indicates the English present tense. "Tear" in Psalm 7:2 is in the Hebrew imperfect, which generally is represented by the English future tense.
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08/01/19

Donnie V.

While there is not a subjunctive in Hebrew, possible or potential events are represented by the imperfect, as in Ps 7:2. In English, "tear" would be a present subjunctive and would not have the "eth" in KJV or "s" in more Modern English. Also, the KJV is considered Early Modern English. Middle English dates from the time of the Norman conquest to the 1400's.
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08/01/19

1 Expert Answer

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Michael B. answered • 08/12/19

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