Asked • 03/19/19

Could a nobleman's land be enclosed within another noble's land?

In medieval (in the broadest sense, I'm not thinking of a specific decade) Europe, lands were split up amongst noblemen, and these noblemen had a hierarchy. Barons are lesser than earls which are lesser than dukes and so on. I see two ways of this happening, and surely only one is correct. Method One: The King gives (for example) 10% of his land to his trusted Earl, and 5% each to three barons. Method Two: The King gives 10% of his land to his trusted Earl and then cuts 1% of **that** land to give it to a Baron. Thus the Baron's land is inside the Earl's and the Baron has some kind of fealty to the Earl. In time of war the king would call on his earls who would in turn call on their barons. Which of these (if either) is more accurate? I realise "medieval Europe" is an enormous scope so answers in general of examples from any time/place in that rough area would be great.

1 Expert Answer

By:

Andrew T. answered • 05/06/23

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