Andy C. answered 07/18/18
Tutor
4.9
(27)
Math/Physics Tutor
lol.... if you had unlimited money then yes you have much more than a profit....
but anyway yes, there is a profit and it is EXACTLY the amount
of the first bet.
Here's the proof.
To keep things simple, the proof is based on $1 bet and done by induction.
1+2 = 3 = 2^2-1
1+2+4 = 7 = 2^3 - 1
1+2+4+8 = 15 = 2^4-1
in general,
1+2+4+8+.....+2^(k-1) = 2^k - 1 <---- this is the induction hypothesis.
1+2+4 = 7 = 2^3 - 1
1+2+4+8 = 15 = 2^4-1
in general,
1+2+4+8+.....+2^(k-1) = 2^k - 1 <---- this is the induction hypothesis.
Induction proof shows:
1+2+4+8+.....+2^(k-1) + 2^k =
2^k - 1 + 2^k = <---- substitutes the induction hypothesis
2*2^k - 1 = <--- adding the same number to itself is the same as multiplying it by 2
2^(k+1) - 1 ; <--- property of exponents
which completes the proof that 1+2+4+...+2^(k) = 2^(k+1)-1
So on the next bet:
2^k - (1+2+4+8+16+.....+2^(k-1)) = <--- subtracts previous losses
2^k - (2^k-1) <--- from previous theorem
=2^k - 2^k + 1
=1 >0 so yes there is a profit since the result is positive of exactly $1
Generally speaking, since you can multiply these equations by
whatever amount you want, you will always come out ahead by the
FIRST amount that is bet, prior to doubling down.
Notice in your example, the first bet was $50 and you came out exactly $50 ahead.
Suppose it is 100,200,400,800. That's 1500 in losses. You win 1600 on the next which is
$100 ahead
The proof I have done for you shows that you will always win back all
of the money and end up with a profit on whatever your first bet was.