Minakshi D.

asked • 09/13/14

binomial theorem

for all natural numbers n, {(22n)*(32n)}-1-35n is divisible by???
 

Dattaprabhakar G.

Minakshi:
 
Some further thoughts on generalizing this problem.  Let me know if you understand it and like it.
 
The basic idea is the following:
 
Take a number, say k, greater than 1. Write kn = [1 + (k-1)]n. By Binomial Theorem you can expand the right side as
 
1 + (k-1)n +∑j = 2n nCj[(k-1)]j
 
Further,
 
(k)n - 1 - (k-1)n = (k-1)2j =2 n  nCj   [(k-1)]j - 2.
 
Hence (k-1)2 is a factor of (k)n - 1 - (k-1).
 
Now you can invent beautiful and interesting patterns for k!!!
 
In the problem, k = (22 )(32) = 36.  But you can take, for instance,  k = (33)(25)(42) = 13824.  When you become an instructor in future, you can set the problem
 
The number (3)3n(25n)(42n) - 1- 13823n, n≥1.  What is it divisible by?  The answer is 191075329.  (This happens to be (13824 -1)2.)
 
Dr. G.
 
Report

09/14/14

Dattaprabhakar G.

Minakshi:
 
Note that for an integer k greater than 1, you can write kn = (1 + (k-1))n, write out the first two terms of the binomial expansion and the remaining just as sum.  The subtract the first two terms from both sides.  You will get
 
kn - 1 - n(k-1) = ∑j=2 n  nCr (k-1)j.
 
The right side can be written as (k-1)2j =2 n nCr (k-1)i - 2.
 
This shows that the left side is divisible by (k-1)2 for any k, k > 1.
 
In the problem, you had  k = (22)(32) = 36, so your answer was (36-1)2 = 352 = 1225.
 
But you can choose k to be any integer you want, in any pattern, as long as k>1.  Neat!  Please post a comment.
 
Dr. G.
Report

09/14/14

2 Answers By Expert Tutors

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Dattaprabhakar G. answered • 09/13/14

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