Taraa R.

asked • 02/11/18

Does (1/2)^0 equal 1?

I think this is what we learned... but why?

1 Expert Answer

By:

Taraa R.

Is there any reason why? Or is it just something we have to do?
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02/12/18

Mark M.

tutor
If it were not true, then the rules of exponents would fail.  We define a0 to be equal to 1 (a≠0) so that the rules of exponents are always valid. 
 
Mark M (Bayport, NY) 
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02/12/18

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