Dustin S. answered 11/16/16
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High School Math Teacher with 14 years experience
So the FTC quite simply says that derivative and integral (or the anti-derivative) are like inverses, they cancel each other out. When I have a function f(x) if I take the anti-derivative (or indefinite integral) we usually denote that F(x) if I take the derivative of F(x), I'm back to my original function, or in math notation F'(x)=f(x).
The notation is a little hard to do right here and I'm not entirely sure I understand the way the questions are phrased, but
The other thing of the FTC you should sort of think about is ∫A to B of f(x)dx = F(B)-F(A) where F(x) is the anti-derivative of f(x). That will help you think through the part b of both questions below
3a) Would be an area, it would be the area under the curve of f(x) between a and b
3b) Would be a "length" it is F(b)-F(a) or how much your F(x) increases from a to b
5a) Would be a "point" its the average value of the function, that is a "point" on the curve
5b) Would be a "slope" if you thought about it literally it would be (F(b)-F(a)) / (b-a) which is the definition of the slope between those two points on the curve